The _________ is a time-phased budget that will be used to measure and monitor cost performance in the project. To transfer most of the cost risk to the contractor, the client may use a ___________ contract. Answer: D An appropriate sequence for risk management activities is: Answer: A Theory X holds that: Answer: D All of the following are characteristics of parametric estimating except: Answer: D Inputs to cost budgeting include all of the following except: Answer: A Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except: Answer: C Cost control outputs include all of the following except: Answer: D Risk identification outputs include the following except: Answer: A Inputs into overall change control include all of the following except: Answer: C At XYZ InC., the hourly wage for semi-skilled workers is $14.00. The annual audit shows that fringe benefits cost 30% of basic wages, and that overhead costs are 60% of wages plus fringe benefits. What is the "loaded" hourly wage for a semi-skilled worker at XYZ Inc.? Answer: D Of the following estimates, which most accurately reflect the actual cost of the project? Answer: D The most crucial time for project risk assessment is: Answer: B When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project, one of the first steps to take is to: Answer: B Including a contingency reserve in the project budget is intended to: Answer: C Given the information in the following table, what is the expected value from this risk event? Probability Result Answer: D A contractor is working on a fixed price contract that calls for a single, lump sum payment upon satisfactory completion of the contract. About halfway through the contract, the contractor's project manager informs their contract administrator that financial problems are making it difficult for them to pay their employees and subcontractors. The contractor asks for a partial payment for work accomplished. Which of the following actions by the buyer is most likely to cause problems for the project? Answer: B A precise description of a physical item, procedure, or service for implementation of an item or service is called a: Answer: C A project should be terminated for all of the following reasons except: Answer: A One common way to compute estimated at completion (EAC) is to take the project budgeted-at-completion and: Answer: D Which of the following is a tool used to secure expert judgment? Answer: B Based on the information provided below, which project would you recommend pursuing? Project I, with BCR (Benefit Cost ratio) of 1:1.6; Answer: B What the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is included should do? Answer: C What kind of a relationship is implied when completion of a successor is dependent on initiation of its predecessor? Answer: D What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project completion? Answer: B An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard and uses that as the key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative identification during scope planning for a particular project has thrown up an expeditious approach to achieve a project need, but this involves a risk of environmental contamination. The team evaluates that the likelihood of the risk is very low. What should the project team do? Answer: A Task Optimistic Most likely Pessimistic A 15 25 47 B 12 22 35 C 16 27 32 Answer: B Explanation: The critical path is the longest duration path through a network and determines the shortest time to complete the project. The PERT estimates of the tasks listed are 27, 22.5 & 26. Therefore, the length of the critical path of the project is 27+22.5+26 = 75.5. The standard deviations of the estimates of the three tasks are determined as (P-O)/6 = 2, 3.83 & 2.67 respectively. The standard deviation of the total path is determined as Sq. root (sum of variances), where variance = square of standard deviation. Thus, standard deviation of critical path = Sq. root (4+14.67+7.13) = 5.08. After a study of the work processes on a project, a quality audit team reports to the project manager that irrelevant quality standards were being used by the project, which might lead to rework. What was the objective of the project manager in initiating this study? Which of the following provides the foundation for team development? Answer: D Which of the following is NOT an input to project plan execution? Answer: A
Answer: C
.4 -10,000
.3 -7,500
.2 -5,000
.1 +2,500
Explanation: The 'Delphi technique' is a commonly used tool to secure expert judgment while initiating a project.
'Peer review' is a project selection tool, 'Expected value' is a method quantitative risk analysis, and 'WBS' is a project-planning tool.
Project II, with NPV of US $ 500,000;
Project III, with IRR (Internal rate of return) of 15%
Project IV, with opportunity cost of US $ 500,000.
Explanation: Project III has an IRR of 15%, which means the revenues from the project equal the cost expended at an interest rate of 15%.
This is a definitive and a favorable parameter, and hence can be recommended for selection.
Project I have an unfavorable BCR and hence cannot be recommended.
Information provided on projects II and IV is not definitive, and hence neither of projects II and IV qualifies for a positive recommendation.
Explanation: A WBS is a deliverable oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project.
Explanation: A start-to-finish (SF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of successor is dependent on the initiation of its predecessor.
A finish-to-start (FS) relationship between two activities implies that the initiation of successor is dependent on the completion of predecessor.
A finish-to-finish (FF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of successor is dependent on the completion of predecessor.
A start-to-start (SS) relationship implies that the initiation of successor is dependent on the initiation of predecessor..
Explanation: The project team must complete a scope statement for developing a common understanding of the project scope among stakeholders. This lists project deliverables - summary level sub-products, whose full and satisfactory delivery marks the completion of the project.
Scope verification is the process of securing a formal acceptance of the project scope by stakeholders.
Scope definition is the process of subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.
A risk management plan involves setting up processes for identifying and dealing with project risks.
Explanation: The organization's reputation being at stake, the threshold for such a risk would be very low.
Mitigation plan against an environmental contamination would mean reducing the impact, which may not be a plausible response.
Procuring an insurance against the risk would only transfer the monetary impact of the risk, and not the intangible impact like, the reputation of the organization.
Planning precautions against the occurrence would still leave an opportunity of occurrence.
This cannot be completely avoided.
The best option would be to drop the approach - that is, complete avoidance of the risk.
Answer: D
Explanation: Determining validity of quality standards, followed by the project is a 'quality assurance' activity.
Compliance of work results to required specifications is a 'quality control' activity.
Determining quality standards is a 'quality planning' activity.
'Checking adherence to processes' is a quality audit activity to ensure that standard operating procedures or job instruction documents (SOPs or JIDs) are being followed for producing the deliverables of the process.
Explanation: Individual development (managerial and technical) is the foundation of a team.
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Posted by
Sikander Baig
Tuesday, April 6, 2010
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